Thursday, November 6, 2008

Who can explain this quote?

It is better to have loved and (to have) lost than never to have loved at all.

(Notice the past infinitives)

7 comments:

Vladimir said...

It's better to love and lost than never love at all. Is it correct ?

Holly Cin said...

That's basically the original quote. Can you explain what it means with the grammar? In other words, can you explain the time use of the past infinitives?

Vladimir said...

khm.. passive voice is used in this quote.. I see it..

Holly Cin said...

no, its not passive voice...

Vladimir said...

khm.. passive voice is not used in this quote.. I see it..

:-))))))))

Angel said...

the love action happened before the time saying. however, if this is a fact or an idiom, i wonder whether we should use the present tense i/o past infinitives. e.g. it is better to love and lose than never love at all????

Holly Cin said...

Quynh,
You are correct! The idiom works just as well in the present tense, exactly as you said. Good work!